Thursday, June 27, 2002
I preached from Mark 10:35-45 a few weeks ago and ever since I've been wondering if Jesus' statement to the brothers, James & John, in Mark 10:39, "You will drink the cup I drink and be baptized with the baptism I am baptized with..." can be taken sacramentally a la John 6:53, 56 (supper) and Colossians 2:12 (baptism). In other words, could part of what Jesus is saying to the brothers be, "in order to have a part in me, you will indeed have to be united to me -- to my death in baptism, to my life-giving flesh in the Lords' Supper." I'm not necessarily denying that Jesus had in mind here the baptism and cup of suffering that James (put to death by the sword) and John (died in exile b/c of his faith), like Jesus, would drink, but I'm wondering if the sacramental connection is possible and even warranted. Any thoughts?